Is it true that there are some missing books of the Holy Bible?

Is it true that there are some missing books of the Holy Bible? Topic: How to write a judge of character letter
May 19, 2019 / By Antony
Question: I keep hearing that there are some books that were omitted from the Holy Bible. Wow! Is this true? Where can I find the missing books of the Bible? I would like to read these missing books? Why were certain books omitted from the Bible? Were they bad? Where can I purchase a copy of the missing books of the Bible?
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Best Answers: Is it true that there are some missing books of the Holy Bible?

Treasure Treasure | 6 days ago
The Apocrypha: is it scripture? The Apocrypha consists of a set of books written between approximately 400 B.C. and the time of Christ. The word "apocrypha" (απόκρυφα) means "Hidden." These books consist of 1 and 2 Esdras, Tobit, Judith, the Rest of Esther, the Wisdom of Solomon, Sirach, (also titled Ecclesiasticus), Baruch, The Letter of Jeremiah, Song of the Three Young Men, Susanna, Bel and the Dragon, The Additions to Daniel, The Prayer of Manasseh, and 1 and 2 Maccabees. The Protestant Church rejects the apocrypha as being inspired, as do the Jews, but in 1546 the Roman Catholic Church officially declared some of the apocryphal books to belong to the canon of scripture. These are Tobit, Judith, 1 and 2 Maccabees Wisdom of Solomon Sirach (also known as Ecclesiasticus), and Baruch. The apocryphal books are written in Greek, not Hebrew (except for Ecclesiasticus, 1 Maccabees, a part of Judith, and Tobit), and contain some useful historical information. Is the Apocrypha Scripture? Protestants deny its inspiration but the Roman Catholic Church affirms it. In order to ascertain whether it is or isn't, we need to look within its pages. Not quoted in the New Testament First of all, neither Jesus nor the apostles ever quoted from the Apocrypha. There are over 260 quotations of the Old Testament in the New Testament, and not one of them is from these books. Nevertheless, a Roman Catholic might respond by saying that there are several Old Testament books that are not quoted in the New Testament, i.e., Joshua, Judges, Esther, etc. Does this mean that they aren't inspired either? But, these books had already been accepted into the canon by the Jews, where the Apocrypha had not. The Jews recognized the Old Testament canon and they did not include the Apocrypha in it. This is significant because of what Paul says: "Then what advantage has the Jew? Or what is the benefit of circumcision? 2Great in every respect. First of all, that they were entrusted with the oracles of God," (Rom. 3:1-2). Paul tells us that the Jews were entrusted with the oracles of God. This means that they are the ones who understood what inspired Scriptures were and they never accepted the Apocrypha. Jesus' references the Old Testament: from Abel to Zechariah Jesus referenced the Jewish Old Testament canon from the beginning to the end and did not include the Apocrypha in his reference. "From the blood of Abel to the blood of Zechariah, who perished between the altar and the house of God; yes, I tell you, it shall be charged against this generation,’" (Luke 11:51). "The traditional Jewish canon was divided into three sections (Law, Prophets, Writings), and an unusual feature of the last section was the listing of Chronicles out of historical order, placing it after Ezra-Nehemiah and making it the last book of the canon. In light of this, the words of Jesus in Luke 11:50-51 reflect the settled character of the Jewish canon (with its peculiar order) already in his day. Christ uses the expression "from the blood of Abel to the blood of Zechariah," which appears troublesome since Zechariah was not chronologically the last martyr mentioned in the Bible (cf. Jer. 26:20-23). However, Zechariah is the last martyr of which we read in the Old Testament according to Jewish canonical order (cf. II Chron. 24:20-22), which was apparently recognized by Jesus and his hearers."1 This means that the same Old Testament canon, according to the Jewish tradition, is arranged differently than how we have it in the Protestant Bible today. This was the arrangement to which Jesus was referring when he referenced Abel and Zechariah, the first and last people to have their blood shed -- as listed in the Old Testament Jewish canon. Obviously, Jesus knew of the Apocrypha and was not including it in his reference. Jesus references the Old Testament: The Law, the Prophets, and the Psalms Catholics sometimes respond by saying that the Old Testament is referred to in three parts: the Law, the Prophets, and the Writings. It is these writings that are sometimes said to include the Apocrypha. But this designation is not found in the Bible. On the contrary, Jesus referenced the Old Testament and designated its three parts as the Law, the Prophets, and the Psalms, not as the Law, the Prophets, and the Writings. "Now He said to them, "These are My words which I spoke to you while I was still with you, that all things which are written about Me in the Law of Moses and the Prophets and the Psalms must be fulfilled," (Luke 24:44). So we see that the designation offered by the Roman Catholics is not the same designation found in the Bible and their argument is invalid as their argument is incorrect. Nevertheless, even if it did say "writings" it would not include the Apocrypha for the above-mentioned reasons. Church Fathers Did the Church fathers recognized the Apocrypha as being Scripture? Roman Catholics strongly appeal to Churc
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Treasure Originally Answered: Why are so many of the Biblical books referenced in the Bible missing?
Simply: they were not preserved. For many of these: probably they were located in what today we might call the "royal libraries" of the kingdoms of Judah and Israel - and destroyed when the capital cities of those nations were conquered. The "lost" letters of Paul probably simply were not preserved and disseminated by their recipient congregations. That is: they were probably discarded, as is usually the case with letters once they have been read. I'm pretty certain that "The Gospel of Andrew" is not actually mentioned in the Bible, and some of those others that you mention as well. This list of "lost texts referenced..." seems to be complete and does not include several that you mention: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lost_books#Lost_Biblical_texts 2) Also, what's up with the Book of Enoch? Why is it only recognized by a few Jews and the Ethiopian Orthodox Church? Primarily because it contains *obvious* and *repeated* error. Secondarily because there is VERY good reason to believe that it was not written by the claimed author (the age required by such a claim, the language in which it was authored and the fact that no Old Testament author refers to it). - Jim, http://www.bible-reviews.com/

Sal Sal
Many texts were omitted from the Bible. When the bishops of the Catholic Church convened in Council at the end of the 4th Century to define the Canon of Christian Scripture once and for all time, they studied and discerned more than a dozen gospels and more than 60 letters (epistles), plus about 2 dozen other miscellaneous texts from New Testament times. Of these 100+ documents, only 27 were finally accepted into the Bible. The rest of them are not "missing books of the Bible". They are non-biblical texts by definition. The 27 New Testament texts were combined with the 46 texts of the Hebrew Scriptures, and bound into a single volume - the Bible - for the first time. These 73 divinely inspired texts, nothing more and nothing less, comprise the Holy Bible.
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Nichola Nichola
No, it's not true, although I've heard the arguments before. While I do not think the KJV is the best available translation, it is still a decent translation and nothing has been "left out" or "removed." Those writings that some want to call "lost books of the Bible" (including the Apocrypha and the Gnostic "gospels") have never been lost - we've known where they were all the time. They just have never been accepted as canonical, save for the Apocrypha which was canonized in 1546 at the Council of Trent. The inclusion of these books has always been debated and the majority of Christians do not accpet them as "Scripture" although their historical content is considered valuable. There are several reasons why these books are not accepted. A few examples: They are not, and have never been, in the Jewish canon. Josephus explicitly excluded them from his list. Philo neither mentions or quotes them. They were never quoted or alluded to by Jesus Christ or any of the apostles. The sermons in the Book of Acts, which outline Jewish history, do not included apocryphal events. Jewish scholars meeting at the Council of Jamnia did not recognize them. Most Church Fathers in fact rejected them. None of the Apocrypha claim inspiration or divine authority. Many of the Apocryphal books contain historical, geographical, and chronological errors. Many of the Apocryphal books include teachings in direct contradiction to the writings accepted by all Christians as the Word of God. Their literary style is legendary and fantasy and some of the stories are grotesque and demonic. Of course, there are those who will argue against these points - and you and I both know that just because someone says something, that doesn't make it true. If you're really interested, I recommend taking some time to research this yourself, from both perspectives, and see what conclusion you come to.
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Lyndi Lyndi
That's funny that the Protestants reject the Apocrypha Books (Deutercanonical Books) from the original Latin Vulgate. I thought they used the Latin Vulgate to write the King James Version? What ever happened with their Books of Tobit, Judith, 1 Maccabees, 2 Maccabees, Wisdom, Sirach (Ecclesiasticus), Baruch and the Greek Manuscripts to Ester and Daniel? The Books of 1 Esdras, 2 Esdras were removed from the Roman Catholic Cannon in 1609 A.D. in the English Translated Bible, the books were still in the Douai Bible. Also the Council of Trent the same Council of Trent that had St. Jerome translate the original Latin Vulgate removed 3 Esdras, 4 Esdras, Prayer of Manasses during 1585-1590 A.D. which they called the Bible the Clementine Vulgate. This was largely do because of the Protestant Reformation. And what gives the Church this authority to remove books that is not considered part of their Cannon. It's called Apostolic Tradition.
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Kaylin Kaylin
That is a myth. The books that are in the Bible now are the ones that were chosen by the ones who put the Bible together. There were many books written at the same time but only the ones in the Bible now made it. The books we have in the Bible have undergone scrupulous investigation to make sure everything was correct and that the book was indeed inspired by God. Any other books that were even considered did not pass the test for accuracy.
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Kaylin Originally Answered: What does the Holy Bible say about "divorce."?
What does the Bible teach about divorce? Divorce is a growing problem in America. The casual attitude of divorce in the secular world is spilling over into the church where the statistics are only slightly lower. Consider the following statistics from the US Census Bureau: In 1920, there was 1 divorce for every 7 marriages. That is 14%. In 1940, there was 1 divorce for every 6 marriages. That is 17%. In 1960, there was 1 divorce for every 4 marriages. That is 25%. In 1972, there was 1 divorce for every 3 marriages. That is 33%. In 1977, there was 1 divorce for every 2 marriages. That is 50%.1 Of course, the divorce rate has stayed around 50% since the 70's, but has recently exceeded that. Marriage was first instituted by God in the Garden of Eden. It is a monogamous, physical and spiritual union between a man and a woman (Gen. 2:21-24), where adultery was forbidden (Exodus 20:14), and dissolution was not allowed. But it didn't take long for the monogamous arrangement to become corrupted. Polygamy became an accepted social custom (Gen. 16:1-2; Deut. 21:15). In fact, many of the Kings of Israel were polygamists. The norm, however, was, and still is, monogamy. People Got Divorced in the Bible As is evident in the statistics above, people get divorced. Even in the Bible there was divorce. In the OT, only men were able to divorce their wives (Deut. 24:1-4). In the NT, women were also apparently able to initiate divorce (Mark 10:12; 1 Cor. 7:13). But, what is a Christian to do if he or she has been divorced? Can he remarry? Should he stay single? Is the Christian guilty of a perpetual sin if he or she divorces? God wants the Christian to take marriage very seriously. Jesus said, "What therefore God has joined together, let no man separate," (Mark 10:9 -- see also 1 Cor. 7:10-11; Heb. 13:4.).2 But, because we live in an imperfect world, the Bible speaks about the circumstance of divorce. Let's take a look. The Biblical Reasons For Divorce Adultery: Jesus said, "And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery," (Matt. 19:9). The word in Greek for immorality is porneia from which we get the word pornography. Sexual immorality, i.e., adultery, is a grounds for divorce according to Jesus. Abandonment: In addressing the issue of husband and wife, Paul said, "Yet if the unbelieving one leaves, let him leave; the brother or the sister is not under bondage in such cases, but God has called us to peace," (1 Cor. 7:15). Some Questions Answered I would like to say up front that the following answers are my opinions. Also, part of the answers to questions on divorce must include grace. God is not a Law Master who wants to forcefully bring His people into broken submission. God is very forgiving and loving. He wants His people to experience joy and fulfillment in their lives and this can only be done in the grace of forgiveness. Jesus bore all your sins, even the sins of divorce. They have been paid for. He will not bring them up again on the Day of Judgment. You are free in Christ. However, there are some biblical guidelines that we need to be aware of regarding divorce. I offer the following outline as a suggestion of options. What if a person was an unbeliever when he got divorced and it was for an unbiblical reason and later became a Christian? What should he do? If reconciliation is an option, seek it. However, If the ex-spouse is not a Christian, he should not remarry the spouse because a believer is not to marry an unbeliever (2 Cor. 6:14). If either spouse has gotten married, remarriage is not an option either (Deut. 24:3-4; Mark 10:11-12). If the ex spouse will have nothing to do with any reconciliation or you are not able to contact this person, you are free to remarry. If the spouse has died, you are free to remarry. What if a person was a believer when he got divorced, but the reason was not adultery or abandonment, and wants to remarry someone different now what should he do? If you initiated the divorce, then you should not remarry (Matt. 5:31), However.... Reconciliation with the initial spouse should be sought with confession of sin and the request for forgiveness. If it was the spouse that left without a biblical reason, then you are free to remarry. Reconciliation should be sought with a confession of sin. What if a couple was divorced, married others, got divorced, and wants to become remarried to again? The Bible says that you cannot return to your first spouse after you remarried (Deut. 24:3-4; Jer. 3:1). If you have, nevertheless, already gotten married, continue in your marriage and seek the Lord's forgiveness. He will give it. What if a person was a believer when he got divorced, but the reason was not adultery or abandonment, and has already gotten married. Is he in sin? Depending on the circumstances, he may be. But he should confess his sin to the lord and spou

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